1-The beta of the Treasury Bills is
True/ False?
True/ False?
2-If the NPV of a project is positive, it indicates that its
Profitability index will be above 0.
True/ False?
Profitability index will be above 0.
True/ False?
3-In order to generate a positive NPV project, a firm must
have competitive advantage.
have competitive advantage.
4-Cyclical firms, with Revenues & Earnings strongly
dependent on state of business cycle tend to have high
betas.
True/ False?
dependent on state of business cycle tend to have high
betas.
True/ False?
5-The Prospect theory states that investors are particularly
averse to making even small losses and need a high
return to compensate for it.
True/ False?
averse to making even small losses and need a high
return to compensate for it.
True/ False?
6-If two investments have the same variance, then investors
would prefer the investment with lower expected
return.
True/False?
would prefer the investment with lower expected
return.
True/False?
7-If the average annual rate of return for common stocks is
12%, and for treasury bills it is 4.0%, the market risk
premium is 8%?
True/False?
12%, and for treasury bills it is 4.0%, the market risk
premium is 8%?
True/False?
8-Correlation coefficients between any two investments can
range from -1 to +1.
True/ False?
range from -1 to +1.
True/ False?
9-If two investments offer the same expected return, most
investors would prefer the investment with higher
variance.
True/ False?
investors would prefer the investment with higher
variance.
True/ False?
10- Beta of a stock or portfolio is a measure of market
risk.
True/ False?
risk.
True/ False?
11-Depreciation acts as a tax shield in reducing the
taxes. True/ False?
taxes. True/ False?
12-The NPV of a project decreases as discount rate used to
discount Cash Flows decreases.
True/ False?
discount Cash Flows decreases.
True/ False?
13-Diversification reduces risk because prices of different
securities do not move exactly together.
True/
False?
securities do not move exactly together.
True/
False?
14-If a Bond’s Coupon rate is lower than its Yield to maturity
(YTM), then the Bond will quote at a premium.
True/ False?
(YTM), then the Bond will quote at a premium.
True/ False?
15-When calculating cash flows, it is important to consider
them on an incremental basis.
True/ False?
them on an incremental basis.
True/ False?
16-The risk that cannot be eliminated by diversification is
called market risk. True/ False?
called market risk. True/ False?
17=A Bond with a ‘AAA’ rating can be called a Junk Bond.
True/ False?
True/ False?
18-Working capital is needed additional investment in the
project and should considered for cash flow estimation.
True/ False?
project and should considered for cash flow estimation.
True/ False?
19-When resources are limited, the Profitability Index (PI)
provides a tool for selecting among various project combinations and alternatives.
True/False?
provides a tool for selecting among various project combinations and alternatives.
True/False?
20-Generally high growth stocks pay high dividends.
True/ False?
True/ False?
21- Generally, post-audits are conducted for large projects:
A. shortly after the completion of the project
B. after several years after the completion of the project
C. shortly after the project has begun to operate
D. well before the start of the project
A. shortly after the completion of the project
B. after several years after the completion of the project
C. shortly after the project has begun to operate
D. well before the start of the project
22- Which of the following statements most appropriately describes “Scenario Analysis”.
A. it looks at the project by changing one variable at a time
B. it provides the break-even level of sales for the project
C. it looks at different but consistent combination of variables
D. each of the above statements describes “Scenario Analysis” correctly
A. it looks at the project by changing one variable at a time
B. it provides the break-even level of sales for the project
C. it looks at different but consistent combination of variables
D. each of the above statements describes “Scenario Analysis” correctly
23- Economic rents are:
A. Returns that are in excess of the opportunity cost of capital
B. Returns that are equal to the opportunity cost of the capital
C. Returns that are less than the opportunity cost of capital
D. None of the above
A. Returns that are in excess of the opportunity cost of capital
B. Returns that are equal to the opportunity cost of the capital
C. Returns that are less than the opportunity cost of capital
D. None of the above
24- The security market line (SML) is the graph of:
A. Expected rate on investment (Y-axis) vs. variance of return
B. Expected return on investment vs. standard deviation of return
C. Expected rate of return on investment vs. beta
D. A and B
A. Expected rate on investment (Y-axis) vs. variance of return
B. Expected return on investment vs. standard deviation of return
C. Expected rate of return on investment vs. beta
D. A and B
25- The capital asset pricing model (CAPM) states that:
A. The expected risk premium on an investment is proportional to its beta
B. The expected rate of return on an investment is proportional to its beta
C. The expected rate of return on an investment depends on the risk-free rate and the market rate of return
D. The expected rate of return on an investment is dependent on the risk-free rate
A. The expected risk premium on an investment is proportional to its beta
B. The expected rate of return on an investment is proportional to its beta
C. The expected rate of return on an investment depends on the risk-free rate and the market rate of return
D. The expected rate of return on an investment is dependent on the risk-free rate
26- The beta of the market portfolio is:
A. +0.50
B. +1.00
C. -1.00
D. 0.00
A. +0.50
B. +1.00
C. -1.00
D. 0.00
27- When stock options are given to managers as incentives, typically the exercise price of these options is set equal to the firm’s:
A. stock price on the day the options are granted.
B. expected stock price in one year from the day the options are granted.
C. expected stock price on the expiration date of the options.
D. none of the above.
A. stock price on the day the options are granted.
B. expected stock price in one year from the day the options are granted.
C. expected stock price on the expiration date of the options.
D. none of the above.
28- According to Michael Porter, managers can secure a competitive advantage for their firm within its industry by:
A. cost leadership only.
B. product differentiation only.
C. focus on a particular market niche only.
D. All or any of the above 3
A. cost leadership only.
B. product differentiation only.
C. focus on a particular market niche only.
D. All or any of the above 3
29- The accounting break-even point occurs when:
A. the total revenue line cuts the fixed cost line
B. the present value of inflows line cuts the present value of outflows line
C. the total revenue line cuts the total cost line
D. none of the above
A. the total revenue line cuts the fixed cost line
B. the present value of inflows line cuts the present value of outflows line
C. the total revenue line cuts the total cost line
D. none of the above
30- The distribution of returns, measured over a short interval of time, like daily returns, can be approximated by:
A. Normal distribution
B. Lognormal distribution
C. Binomial distribution
D. none of the above
A. Normal distribution
B. Lognormal distribution
C. Binomial distribution
D. none of the above
31- A stock with a beta of 1. 25 would be expected to:
A. Increase in returns 25% faster than the market in up markets
B. Increase in returns 25% faster than the market in down markets
C. Increase in returns 125% faster than the market in up markets
D. Increase in returns 125% faster than the market in down markets
A. Increase in returns 25% faster than the market in up markets
B. Increase in returns 25% faster than the market in down markets
C. Increase in returns 125% faster than the market in up markets
D. Increase in returns 125% faster than the market in down markets
32- Everything else remaining the same, an increase in fixed costs:
I) increases the break-even point based on NPV
II) increases the accounting break-even point
III) decreases the break-even point based on NPV
IV) decreases the accounting break-even point
A. I and III only
B. III and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I and II only
33-Investing in gold is like:
I) Investing in a stock that pays quarterly dividends
II) Investing in a stock that pays annual dividends
III) Investing in Treasury bonds
IV) Investing in a stock that pays no dividends
A. I only
B. II only
C. I,II, and III only
D. IV only
34-The following are some of the competitive advantages that can last longer:
I) proprietary technology
II) protected markets with high barriers to entry by other firms
III) strategic assets that competitors cannot easily duplicate
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III
35-The following are advantages of using EVA (Economic
Value Added) as a measure of performance except:
A. EVA is a substitute for explicit monitoring by top management
B. EVA makes the cost of capital visible to the operating management hence reduce capital employed
C. EVA does not measure present value
D. EVA highlights the parts of business that are not performing
I) increases the break-even point based on NPV
II) increases the accounting break-even point
III) decreases the break-even point based on NPV
IV) decreases the accounting break-even point
A. I and III only
B. III and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I and II only
33-Investing in gold is like:
I) Investing in a stock that pays quarterly dividends
II) Investing in a stock that pays annual dividends
III) Investing in Treasury bonds
IV) Investing in a stock that pays no dividends
A. I only
B. II only
C. I,II, and III only
D. IV only
34-The following are some of the competitive advantages that can last longer:
I) proprietary technology
II) protected markets with high barriers to entry by other firms
III) strategic assets that competitors cannot easily duplicate
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I, II and III
35-The following are advantages of using EVA (Economic
Value Added) as a measure of performance except:
A. EVA is a substitute for explicit monitoring by top management
B. EVA makes the cost of capital visible to the operating management hence reduce capital employed
C. EVA does not measure present value
D. EVA highlights the parts of business that are not performing
36-One important implication of the efficient markets
hypothesis is that:
A. investors should hold a diversified portfolio and avoid active trading.
B. investors can benefit by engaging in day trading.
C. investors should trade actively help to ensure the highest overall gain in their portfolios.
D. all of the above
hypothesis is that:
A. investors should hold a diversified portfolio and avoid active trading.
B. investors can benefit by engaging in day trading.
C. investors should trade actively help to ensure the highest overall gain in their portfolios.
D. all of the above
37-Discounted Cash Flow (DCF) analysis generally:
I) assumes that firms hold assets passively when it invests in a project
II) considers opportunities to expand a project if the project is successful
III) considers opportunities to abandon a project if the project is a failure
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
I) assumes that firms hold assets passively when it invests in a project
II) considers opportunities to expand a project if the project is successful
III) considers opportunities to abandon a project if the project is a failure
A. I only
B. II only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, and III
38-Project analysis, in addition to NPV analysis, includes the following procedures:
I) Sensitivity analysis
II) Break-even analysis
III) Monte Carlo simulation
IV) Scenario Analysis
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
I) Sensitivity analysis
II) Break-even analysis
III) Monte Carlo simulation
IV) Scenario Analysis
A. I only
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
39-Which of the following statement(s) is/are true if the efficient market hypothesis holds?
I) It implies perfect forecasting ability
II) It implies market is irrational
III) It implies that prices follow a particular pattern
IV) It implies that prices reflect all available information
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. IV only
I) It implies perfect forecasting ability
II) It implies market is irrational
III) It implies that prices follow a particular pattern
IV) It implies that prices reflect all available information
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and III only
D. IV only
40-Variance of stock returns is:
A. always negative
B. always positive
C. sometimes positive sometimes negative
D. zero
A. always negative
B. always positive
C. sometimes positive sometimes negative
D. zero
41-You are given the following data for year1:
Revenues = $100 million, Fixed costs = $30million;
Total variable costs = $50 million; Depreciation = $10 million; Tax rate = 30%.
Calculate the after tax cash flow for the project for year-1.
(do not enter $ millions in the answer)
42-The covariance between stock A and stock B is 0.01.
(do not enter $ millions in the answer)
42-The covariance between stock A and stock B is 0.01.
The standard deviation of stock A is 10% and that of stock B is 20%.
Calculate the correlation coefficient between the two securities.
43-The covariance between YOHO stock and the market index S&P 500 is 0.05.
43-The covariance between YOHO stock and the market index S&P 500 is 0.05.
The standard deviation of the stock market is 20%.
What is the beta of YOHO?
44-If you invest $10,000 at an annual interest rate of 9%, how much will you have at the end of 8 years (interest compounded annually)?
(do not indicate $, commas and decimals in your Final answers)
44-If you invest $10,000 at an annual interest rate of 9%, how much will you have at the end of 8 years (interest compounded annually)?
(do not indicate $, commas and decimals in your Final answers)
45-BilhamInc has an Earnings per Share (EPS) of $5. It declares a Dividend of $3 per share (DPS).
What is the company’sPloughback Ratio (PBR)?
What is the company’sPloughback Ratio (PBR)?
(indicate your answer in decimal, not as %; eg., if your answer is 0.2, indicate your answer as 0.2, not 20%)
46-If the beta of Exxon Mobil is 0.60, risk-free rate is 3% and the market rate of return is 11%, calculate the expected rate of return from Exxon.
(do not include % in your answer)
(do not include % in your answer)
47-A 3-year US Government Bond has a Face Value of $100 and a Coupon rate of 6% paid annually. If the current Interest rate is 7% pa, what would be the Bond’s Price?
(do not include $ sign in your answer; give your answer in 2 decimals)
(do not include $ sign in your answer; give your answer in 2 decimals)
48-Suppose you invest 60% of your portfolio in Bayer and 40% in Delta Airlines.
The Standard Deviations of their annualized daily returns are 20% & 16%, respectively.
Assume a correlation coefficient of 0.40. Calculate Portfolio variance.
(give your answer in 2 decimals)
The Standard Deviations of their annualized daily returns are 20% & 16%, respectively.
Assume a correlation coefficient of 0.40. Calculate Portfolio variance.
(give your answer in 2 decimals)
49-An investor is trying to assess the likely return from a stock he is considering to invest.
He polls with 3 analysts, who indicate the likely returns over the investment horizon and the corresponding probabilities (given in table below).
He polls with 3 analysts, who indicate the likely returns over the investment horizon and the corresponding probabilities (given in table below).
Calculate the Standard Deviation of Returns for the stock
(give your answer in 2 decimals)
Returns % Probability %
6
40
8 35
10 25
1
(give your answer in 2 decimals)
Returns % Probability %
6
40
8 35
10 25
1
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